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Yes, to deceive us!
Paradox!
Or Orthodox, Kyle hasn't said if he is Jewish or not, and if he did I wasn't here.
Perhaps Kyle discovered "Hero" and told us it's his side account to throw us off of his REAL side account.
Ah so, grasshopper.
Who are you calling grasshopper, grasshopper?
Haha. Actually, I am a completly different Kyle, from the DC area. I happen to be a born Catholic, but I don't agree with many of the beliefs, not jewish. Also, I am younger than 21, if I am correct on his age.
Wait, I think I know what should happen, all the Kyle's should go out and have a Kyle party.
Posted By: PanoplyWait, I think I know what should happen, all the Kyle's should go out and have a Kyle party.
I believe there was something like that in England, 600 people with the same name showed up (first and last). Can't remember the name itself off the top of my head though.
I think when the movie Meet the Fockers came out, they had 25 people who really had the last name Fockers get together for a party.
Posted By: heroHaha. Actually, I am a completly different Kyle, from the DC area. I happen to be a born Catholic, but I don't agree with many of the beliefs, not jewish. Also, I am younger than 21, if I am correct on his age.
Sure...
We all know you celebrate Yom Kippur.
"Kyle" is a word in 42 languages, with various meanings, such as "tasty" (Armenian), "swamp grass" (Tahitian), and "fall behind" (Yucatec).
The meaning of Kyle (and everything else) is now much clearer.
Back on topic, try out this one - I haven't figured it out after several attempts. Sure, your calculator will solve it no problem, but my steps on paper often lead to a dead end (embarassing but true). HELP! 
(e^b) + a = 2
[e^(1+b)] + a = 6
(Notes: I used ^ to notate "to the power of". Also, there's 2 variables to solve for.)
a = -0.32790682747730569754000802043605 (ish)
b = 0.84496950650697250985610788798368 (ish)
b = ln(4/(e-1))
And I've been to the kyle of lochalsh
why not set it up as
(e^b) + a = [e^(1+b)] +a - 4
then
(e^b) = [e^(1+b)]-4
I am stuck here, lol. Is this any simplier than before?
Well, if you solve for a in each equation, you get
a= 2 - e^b
a= 6 - e^(1+b)
therefore
2 - e^b = 6-e^(1+b)
and
e^(1+b) - e^b = 4
Does that help somewhat?
Thank you Athene. And carrying on...
e . e^b - e^b = 4
e^b . ( e - 1) = 4
e ^b = 4 / (e - 1)
b = ln( 4 / (e - 1) )
after that, my head hurts. And all I can think of now is how to solve 3 variable equations....
Posted By: UdoboyPerhaps Kyle discovered "Hero" and told us it's his side account to throw us off of his REAL side account.
Ah so, grasshopper.
Posted By: Cody56Who are you calling grasshopper, grasshopper?
I would have been more offended by being called Ah So!
i always thought that because
0^5 - 0
0^4 - 0
0^3 - 0
0^2 - 0
0^1 - 0
0^0 - ? wouldnt that then be 0
0^-1 - 0
0^-2 - 0
Thanks all - Palustrious in particular - wonderful people all of you *sniff*
Posted By: critdragoni always thought that because
0^5 - 0
0^4 - 0
0^3 - 0
0^2 - 0
0^1 - 0
If these are supposed to be "=" instead of "-" then y ou're doing well so far.
0^0 - ? wouldnt that then be 0
Not necessarily
0^-1 - 0
0^-2 - 0[/p]
****ERROR****
0^(-1) = 1/0; this is undefined.
0^(-2) = 1/0^2; this is undefined.
So now it does make sense that 0^0 would be undefined.
we had this in a maths lesson in school before and our teacher came to the answer that she didnt know and didnt care.. lol..
Posted By: UdoboySo now it does make sense that 0^0 would be undefined
U is the main man. Correct.
Though Microsoft's Calculator gives it as 1 I think.
That's because Bill Gates designed it, he can't comprehend the value of "0".
Hey, what the crap?! Dictionary.com lists my first name next to "Uncomprehend."
0^0 is undefined because of continuity problems. its kinda that simple
Posted By: TranceThat's because Bill Gates designed it, he can't comprehend the value of "0".
Hey, what the crap?! Dictionary.com lists my first name next to "Uncomprehend."
he wouldnt have designed it, someone would have designed it for him. and they get paid to give simple answers, not to say that you cant get an answer.
*sighs and averts gaze*
Posted By: jsimpleton0^0 is undefined because of continuity problems. its kinda that simple
Step one way off the tightrope and you fall down. Step the other way and you fall somewhere else. I was fascinated when I first learned of pathological functions. (Mathematical ones that is)
Posted By: jsimpleton0^0 is undefined because of continuity problems. its kinda that simple
Can you elaborate on that simple thing?
let f(x,y)=x^y
given y=0 lim x->0+ f(x,0)=1
given x=0 lim y->0+ f(0,y)=0
0!=1 so continuity problem. so its undefined
i don't know the formal definition of a patholigical funtion
Neither do I. But within a given range it is definable for all x but differentiable at none.
should we just say 0^0=? lol that works
I've been staring sideays at the screen for 10 min trying to understand that smilie. I've got the bearded, screaming surprised snorkeller bit but the question mark is throwing me.
Posted By: PaulustriousNeither do I. But within a given range it is definable for all x but differentiable at none.
so is it like brownian motion?
Posted By: PaulustriousI've been staring sideays at the screen for 10 min trying to understand that smilie. I've got the screaming surprised snorkeller bit but the question mark is throwing me.
ellohell
Posted By: jsimpletonPosted By: PaulustriousNeither do I. But within a given range it is definable for all x but differentiable at none.
so is it like brownian motion?
mmm, I've never seen a brownian motion equation. But no. On a position vector / time basis at any time 't' you could not evaluate it, although you may be able to differentiate it. (assuming we are looking at the light particles rather than the molecules in motion.)
There are an inifnite number of pathological functions, such as the blancmange function. All fractals (I think) are pathological, as are all continually discontinuous functions. You now plumbing the depths of my knowledge. Quite wide, but extremely shallow.
And you brought up the subject of continuity so don't blame me. I was happy with my tightrope answer.
This should clear up all your math fuzziness: Ma & Pa Kettle doin' 'rithmatic
i think i understand now. continuous everywhere but not differentiable anywhere.
I still remember feeling of wonder when we derived this equation in class. I was 16 at the time.
e^( i . π ) = -1
How do you derive that one, Paul?
He misspelled: i eat pie
It comes from the formula:
e^(i.Ɵ) = cos(Ɵ) + i.sin(Ɵ)
and making Ɵ equal to π.
You can prove it by expanding e, sin and cos as Taylor series (or Maclaurin series, I can never remember which is which) Examples of it are all over the internet. It is called Euler's identity but I don't remember that name from high school.
And Sinh.Sinh - Cosh.Cosh = 1 was another.
I never understood why 0^0 was undefined. I asked three upper-level math teachers at my school, and none of them knew. So I've recently contacted somebody from a local college. :D
I'll report answers here, maybe.
LOL. omg teachers.
I used to think it's a divine job. I still think it is a divine job, it's just taken by the unmatched people.
JSimpleton's explanation is correct. Take time to understand what he is saying. I'll give a different example. It's not the same thing but it will give you a feel for it. Take the formula 1/x. As x gets smaller and smaller ( 1, .0001, .000000001) the result gets bigger and bigger. 'Eventually' we get an infinite number.
Mathematically we would be tempted to say:
Lim(1/x) as x->0 i = ∞
However if we start from a negative side ( x=-1, x=-.000001) then the limit is minus infinity. Now you may have been told that all infinities are equal, but they are not. We can actually say:
∞ ≠ -∞
So what is 1/x as x->0. Well the answer is 'undefined'. In a sense the question has no meaning, or is unanswerable. There is a point of discontinuity. You cannot draw a line from a-little-bit-to-the-left to a-little-bit-to-the-right'. Some discontinuity points can have defined values, but the two discussed do not.
I am not sure if that helps. Someone out there in internetsville must have written a better explanation than mine...
Posted By: PaulustriousIt comes from the formula:
e^(i.Ɵ) = cos(Ɵ) + i.sin(Ɵ)
and making Ɵ equal to π.
You can prove it by expanding e, sin and cos as Taylor series (or Maclaurin series, I can never remember which is which) Examples of it are all over the internet. It is called Euler's identity but I don't remember that name from high school.
And Sinh.Sinh - Cosh.Cosh = 1 was another.
Thanks!
Posted By: HaoestLOL. omg teachers.
I used to think it's a divine job. I still think it is a divine job, it's just taken by the unmatched people.
sounds like you don't like your teachers very much.
my cousin is becoming a teacher, i think she's going to be good at it. She's very patient.